10p14 Adv 3 Paper 2 Aceg2

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VMC/JEE-2014/Paper-2 1 JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Aggarwal Corporate Heights, 3rd Floor, Plot No. A - 7, Netaji Subhash Place,

Pitam Pura, Delhi - 110034 Phone: 011-45221191-93

JEE ADVANCED - 3/JEE-2014/Paper - 2

25/12/2013

TEST CODE : ACEGM.M. : 180

02:00 PM - 05:00 PM TIME : 3.00 Hrs

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I : Chemistry, Part II : Physics, Part III : Mathematics).

Each Part has 3 sections (Section I, Section II & Section III).

2. Section I contains 8 Multiple Objective type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct.

3. Section II contains 8 Straight Objective (Paragraph) type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),

(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.

4. Section III contains 4 Match the following Objective type Questions. Each question contains

statements given in 2 lists. Statements in the first list have to be matched with statements in the

second list and then option with the appropriate code is to be marked in the answer sheet.

5. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your

Test Code, Roll No.and GroupProperly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.

6. For each question in Section I, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble

corresponding to all correct answers and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,

minus ONE (1) mark (NEGATIVE MARKING)will be given.

7. For each question in Section II, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,


8. For each question in Section III, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,


9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile

phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty

in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. No one will be permitted to leave the test room before the end of the test, i.e. 05.00 PM

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PART - I (CHEMISTRY) 60 MARKS

SECTION - I

MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE

This section contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which

ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:

1. Which of the following are diastereomeric pairs ?

[I] [II] [III] [IV]

(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I and II (D) III and IV

2. Select the CORRECT statements for the equilibrium under standard conditions.

2 2 1H O(s) H O( ) ; S ; 2 2 2H O( ) H O(v) ; S ; 2 2 3H O(s) H O(v) ; S

(A) 1 2S S (B) 2 1S S (C) 3 2S S (D) 3 1S S

3. Boyles law may be expressed as: (K is a constant)

(A) T(dP / dV) K / V (B)2

T(dP / dV) K /V

(C) T(dP / dV) K /V (D)1

VP

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

BrH

H Br

Me

COOH

Br

H

H

Br

Me

COOH

BrH

H Br

Me

COOH

Br H

H Br

Me

COOH

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4. 2H O

2

Me|

CH CH CH Cl (I) + (II). Which of the following statements are CORRECT ?

(A)2

Me

|CH CH CH OH (I) isthemajor product at 0 C

(B) 2HO CH CH CH Me (II) is themajor product at 40 C

(C) Allyl chloride is reactive towards SN1 and SN2 reaction

(D) Formation of (II) takes place via allylic delocalisation of carbocation

5. Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE about P4O10.

(A) The number of P O P bonds is 6

(B) The number of P O P bonds is 10

(C) 4 10P O is a potent dehydrating agent

(D) The number of P O bonds in the structure of 4 10P O is 4


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6. A hydrogen like ion, He (Z 2) is exposed to electromagnetic waves of wavelength 256.4 .

The exited electron gives out induced radiations. Which of the following statements is true about this

system: (Given R = 109677 1cm , energy of an electron in the Bohr's first orbit of H-atom is 13.6eV )

(A) The wavelengths of the Induced radiations, when electron de-excites back to ground state are

256.4 , 303.9 and 1641.3 respectively

(B) The total energy of electron in the ground state of He is 54.4eV

(C) The total energy of electron in first excited state of He is 13.6 eV

(D) The potential energy of electron in the first excited state of He is 27.2eV

7. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) CORRECT?

(A) Inductive effect is permanent shifting of electrons towards more electronegative element

(B) Mesomeric effect is delocalization of electrons over a conjugated system

(C) Hyperconjugation is simultaneous shifting of and electrons at 1, 3-position without themovement of H atom from its position

(D) Tautomerism is simultaneous shift of and electrons at 1, 3-position with the movement of

H atom from its position

8. Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE for d block elements.

(A) In any row, the melting points of these metals rise to a maximum and then fall regularly as

atomic number increases

(B) Higher oxidation state is favoured by heavier elements

(C) Cr2+

is oxidising in nature

(D) Magnetic moment of a divalent ion of Manganese in aqueous solution is 5.92 BM


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SECTION - II

SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 8 Single Choice Paragraph based Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D

out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.

Paragraph for Questions 9 - 10

A voltaic cell consists of an electrode of solid silver immersed in a 0.10 M AgNO3solution and an electrode of

unknown metal X immersed in a 0.10 M solution X(NO3)2. A porous barrier separates two half cells.

Also given:

cell(Ag Ag)E 0.80 V and E 1.05 V at 25 C

/

2X(s) X (1.0M) Ag (0.1 M) Ag(s) | || |

9. Which of the following statements regarding the cell and X is incorrect?

(A) Standard EMF 2(E ) of X X is 0.25 V at 25 C |

(B) X is a stronger reducing agent than H2(g)

(C) As the cell operates, the concentration of both 2X and Ag increase in their respective half

cells

(D) As the cell operates, the concentration of X2+

increases in the anode chamber while the

concentration of Ag decrease in the cathode chamber

10. If Ag |Ag half cell in the above voltaic cell is replaced by 22

Zn ZnZn Zn half cell (E 0.76 V)

|

| .

(A) The direction of current flow will remain same(B) Polarity of the electrodes will be reversed

(C) Cell will stop working

(D) EMF of the cell will increase


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Paragraph for Question 11 - 12

Spontaneity of any process can be predicated with the help of totalS . But this requires calculation of changes

in system as well as surroundings. If some criteria (depending upon the system only) can be developed for

checking spontaneity under specific conditions, then that would be a more useful parameter. The criteria can be

derived from Clausius inequality.

T dS q > sign for irreversible process = sign for reversible process

or T dS dU W for an irreversible process

or sys sysT dS dU PdV [consider no non-PV work]

If U and V are constant,

sysT dS 0

or U.V(dS) 0 for spontaneous process

If V and T are constant

TdS dU

or dU T dS 0

As temperature is constant, dU d(TS) 0 or d U TS 0

Another state function A (Helmholtzsfunction) = U TS

A decrease in Helmholtzsfunction (A) under constant volume and temperature is the criteria of spontaneity of

a process.

11. If a state function G is defined such as G H TS , then G must decrease for a spontaneous process

(involving only PV work) occurring at :

(A) Constant volume and temperature (B) Constant pressure and temperature

(C) Constant volume and pressure (D) Constant entropy and volume

12. For an irreversible cyclic processdq

T is :

(A) Equal to zero (B) Greater than zero

(C) Less than zero (D) Equal to change is Gibb's energy


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Intramolecular aldol condensation :

The aldol condensation also offers a convenient way to synthesize molecules with five and six membered rings.

This can be done by an intramolecular aldol condensation using a di-aldehyde, a keto-aldehyde or a di-ketone as

the substrate. The major product is formed by the attack of the enolate from the ketone side of the molecule that

adds to the aldehyde group. The reason that aldehyde group undergoes addition preferentially may arise from

the greater reactivity of aldehyde towards nucleophillic addition generally.

In reaction of this type five membered rings form far more readily than seven membered rings and six

membered rings are more favorable than four or eight membered rings when possible.

13. 1-Ethylclopent-1-ene on reductive ozonolysis followed by aq. NaOH/ gives :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

14. Which of the following compounds on reaction with O3/Zn, H2O followed by aq. NaOH/ will form

(A) (B) (C) (D)


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The first I 1( H ) and second I 2( H ) ionization enthalpies (in kJ1mol ) and the ( egH ) electron gain enthalpy

(in kJ 1mol ) of a few elements are given below :

Elements 1 1H 1 1H egH

(A) P 520 7300 60

(B) Q 419 3051 48

(C) R 1681 3374 328

(D) S 1008 1846 295

(E) T 2372 5251 + 48

(F) U 738 1451 40

15. The least reactive element is :

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) T

16. The most reactive metal is :

(A) P (B) Q (C) S (D) U


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SECTION - III

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

This section contains 4 Single Choice Questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists

have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE Choice is correct.

17. MATCH THE FOLLOWING LISTS :

List 1 List 2

(P) F-centres 1. Extra cations present ininterstitial sites

(Q) Metal excess defect 2. Some cations are replaced byone of higher valence

(R) Metal deficiency defect 3. Both cations and anions are

missing from lattices

(S) Schottky defects 4. Electrons trapped in anionic

vacancies

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 3 1 2 4


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List 1 List 2

(P) Silver 1. Forms passive oxide layer onreaction with conc. HNO3

(Q) Aluminium 2. Reacts with H2S to give blackcoloured compound.

(R) Gold 3. Reacts with Aqua regia to form

complex.

(S) Tin 4. Reacts with water to give

Hydrogen gas.

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 2 1 3 4(C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 3 1 2 4


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List 1 List 2

(P) aE (f) 1. 110KJ mol

(Q) aE (b) 2. 140 KJ mol

(R) rH 3. 130 KJ mol

(S) Ethreshold 4. 150 KJ mol

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 2 3 1


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List 1 List 2 [Major Product]

(P) 1.

(Q) 2.

(R) 3.

(S) 4.

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 3 2 1 4 (B) 3 3 1 4

(C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 1 3 3


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PART - II (PHYSICS) 60 MARKS

SECTION - I




21. A metal wire of lengthL, cross-sectional area A and Youngs Modulus Yis stretched by a variable force

F. F is varying in such a way that Fis always slightly greater than the elastic forces of resistance in the

wire. When the elongation in the wire is l, upto this instant :

(A) The work done by F is

2

2

YAl

L (B) The work done by F is

2YAl

L

(C) The elastic potential energy stored in wire is

2

2

YAl

L

(D) No energy is lost during elongation

22. Internal energy :

(A) Is a state function

(B) Is a path function

(C) Is related to work done by the system and heat exchange from the system by the First Law of

Thermodynamics

(D) Of two systems of the same ideal gas but with different masses at the same temperature is

different


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23. A particle, moving horizontally, collides perpendicularly at one and

of a rod having equal mass and placed on a smooth horizontal

surface.

(A) Particle comes to rest if collision is perfectly elastic and

centre of rod starts to move with the same velocity(B) Particle continues to move along the same direction,

whatever is the value of e

(C) Particle may rebound back.

(D) Velocity of mid-point of the rod will be less than 0 2/ if the particle gets stuck

24. The string shown in the figure is passing over small smooth pulley

rigidly attached to trolley A. If the speed of trolley is constant and equal

to vAtowards right, speed and magnitude of acceleration of block B with

respect to trolley at the instant shown in figure are :

(A) 0B A Bv , a (B) 0Ba

(C)3

5B Av (D)

216

125

ABa

25. All the particles thrown with the same initial speed would strike the ground.

(A) With same speed

(B) Simultaneously

(C) Time would be least for the particle

thrown with velocity v downward i.e.,

particle 1(D) Time would be maximum for the particle 2


m

m

v0

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26. X-ray from a tube with a target A of atomic numberZ shows strongKlines for target A and weak K

lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and 1 2and for two impurities.

1

4z

and

2

1

4

z

Assuming the screening constant of K lines to be unity. Select the correct statement(s) :

(A) The atomic number of first impurity is 2 1z

(B) The atomic number of first impurity is 2z+ 1.

(C) The atomic number of second impurity is 1

2

z

(D) The atomic number of second impurity is 12

z .

27. For the situation shown in the figure, select the correct statement(s):

(A) Potential of the conductor is

04

q

d R

(B) Potential of the conductor is04

q

d

(C) Potential of the conductor cant be determined as nature of distribution of induced charges isnot known

(D) Potential at point B due to induced charges is 04

qR

d R d

28. Consider three converging lenses 1 2 3andL , L L having identical geometrical construction. The index

of reflection of 1 2 1 2and are andL L respectively . The upper half of the lens L3has a refractive

index 1 and the lower half has 2 . A point object Ois imaged at O1by the lens L1and at O2by the

lensL2placed in same position. IfL3is placed at the same place,

(A) There will be an image at O1

(B) There will be an image at O2

(C) The only image formed will be

somewhere between O1and O2

(D) The only image formed will be away from O1


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SECTION - II





A light rod of length L= 2 mis suspended horizontally from the ceiling by

two wires A and B of equal lengths. The wire A is made of steel with the

area of cross section 5 21 10sA m while the wire B is made of brass of

cross-sectional area 5 22 10bA m . A weight W is suspended at a

distance x from the wire A as shown in the figure. Take, Youngs Modulus

of steel and brass as 11 22 10sY Nm and 11 21 10bY Nm

.

29. Determine the value of x so that equal stresses are produced in each wire.

(A) 1.33 m (B) 1.5 m (C) 0.67 m (D) 0.33 m

30. Determine the value of x so that equal strains are produced in each wire.

(A) 1m (B) 0.5m (C) 0.67 m (D) 1.2 m


A monoatomic ideal gas of two moles is taken through a cyclic process starting from A as shown. 2B

A

V

V and

4

D

A

V

V

. Temperature (TA) at A is 27C .

31. Find the temperature at B, TB:

(A) 600 K

(B) 450 K

(C) 400 K

(D) 900 K

32. Find the work done during the process A B :

(A) 1200 R (B) 1500 R (C) 1400 R (D) 1000 R


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The arrangement for a Lloyds mirror experiment is shown in

figure. S is a point source of frequency 146 10 Hz. D and C

represent the two ends of a mirror placed horizontally and LOMrepresents the screen.

33. Determine the width of the region where the fringes will be visible.

(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 3 cm

34. Find the fringe width of the fringe pattern.

(A) 0.05 cm (B) 0.25 cm (C) 0.01 cm (D) 0.1 cm


1mm

5cm 5cm 190cm

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Cyclotron is a device to speed up a charge particle to any desired

speed. The principle is that a charge particle speeds up in the gap

between the Dees where an alternating electric field is applied.

The time of circular motion of the charge particle in the

magnetic field normal to the Dees does not depend on the speed

of the particle which is given as2 m

T .qB

Hence, the particle

takesm

tqB

to revolve a half circle.

During this time the polarity of the Dees can be changed (adjusted) so that always the particle speeds up in the

gap. This is possible by synchronizing the frequency of oscillation of the electric field and frequency of

revolution of the particle. In each revolution, the particle gets two impulses to increase its speed. After millionsof revolutions, the particle attains suitable speeds for different purpose such as atom splitting etc. The Dees are

perforated so that the stream of particles move in spiral path before emerging by the deflector. Using the above

ideas answer the following questions.

35. The angular momentum of an accelerating charge in the cyclotron depends on ras:

(A) r (B) 2r (C) 0r (D) 3r

36. If the maximum voltage across the gap is gap is 50 kV, the number of revolution to attain 100 MeV for

a proton is:

(A) 2000 (B) 1000 (C) 500 (D) None of these


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SECTION - III

MATRIX MATCH TYPE


have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


List 1 List 2

(P) Splitting of bigger drop into small

droplets

1. Temperature increases

(Q) Formation of bigger drop from small

droplets

2. Temperature decreases

(R) Spraying of liquid 3. Surface energy increases

(S)In isochoric process, as pressure

decreases4.

Surface energy decrease

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 2 1 3 2 (D) 2 3 2 2


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List 1 List 2

(P) 1. Body accelerates forwards

(Q) 2. Rotation about the centre of mass is

clockwise

(R) 3. Friction force acts backwards

(S) 4. No friction acts

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S(A) 1 4 2 4 (B) 3 1 3 2

(C) 2 1 3 2 (D) 4 3 2 1


F

Ring

F

Disc

F

Solid Cylinder

R/2

F

Solid Cylinder

R/2

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39. A white light ray is incident on a glass prism, and it

create four refracted rays A, B, C and D. Match the

refracted rays with the colors given (I and D are rays

due to total internal reflection):

Note that blue green yellow red MATCH THE FOLLOWING LISTS :

List 1 List 2

(P) A 1. Red

(Q) B 2. Green

(R) C 3. Yellow

(S) D 4. Blue

Codes :

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 3 1 4 2

(C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 2 4 1 3


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40. F, are net force and torque acting on any of the loop :

MATCH THE FOLLOWING LISTS :

List 1 [Systems of two currents] List 2 [Forces and Torques]

(P) 1. 0, F =0

(Q) 2. 0 0, F

Loops are in the same plane

(R) 3. 0 0, F

The loops lie in perpendicular planes

(S) 4. 0 0, F

The loops lie in perpendicular planes

Codes :P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 4 2 2 2 (B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 1 2 4


i1 i2

i2 i1

i2

i1

i2i1

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PART - III (MATHEMATICS) 60 MARKS

SECTION - I




41. If in a 2 0ABC, cos A C cos B cos B , then which of the following options is(are) correct?

(where, the symbols have their usual meanings)

(A)2 2 22sin A sin C sin B (B) 2 2a , b and 2c are in AP

(C) 2 2a , b and 2c are in GP (D) 2sin A sinC sin B

42. A, B, C are three events for which P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.6, P(C) = 0.5,

0 75 0 35P A B . , P A C . and 0 2P A B C . . If 0 75P A B C . , then

P B C can take the value :

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.5

43. The equation 2 216 3 32 12 44 0x y x y represents a hyperbola.

(A) The length of whose transverse axis is 4 3

(B) The length of whose conjugate axis is 4

(C) Whose centre is (1, 2)

(D) Whose eccentricity is

19

3

44. Let c a b a b where a and b are unit vectors such that 0a b . Then :

(A) b c (B) a c

(C) a b c (D) a b a b c


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45. If a, b, care three consecutive integers then the determinant

2

2

2

a ab ac

ab b bc

ac bc c

is divisible by

(A) 36 (B) 144 (C) 48 (D) None of these

46. If10

1

2 2

11 11k

k kS sin i cos

, then :

(A) 0S S (B) 1SS (C) 1

12

S i (D) 0S S

47. The equation 221 1 2 0tantan tan sec , where lies in the interval

2 2,

has :

(A) One solution in the interval 02

,

(B) No solution in the interval 02

,

(C) One solution in the interval 02

,

(D) Two solutions in the interval 02

,

48. For n N , if 2

2

0

1nn

rr

r

x x a x

, then :

(A) r n ra a (B) 2r n ra a

(C) 0 1 12 2nn na a . . . . a a (D) 2 2 2 2 20 1 2 3 2n na a a a . . . . a a


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SECTION - II





There are n students in a class. All the students appear for an exam. The probability that exactly k students

(out of the total n students) will pass the examination is directly proportional to k2.

Now, based on the above information, answer the following questions :

49. What is the probability that a student selected at random has passed the examination?

(A)

3 1

4 2 1

n

n

(B)

3 1

2 2 1

n

n

(C)

1

2 1

n

n

(D)

1

2 2 1

n

n

50. If a student selected randomly has been found to pass the examination, then what is the probability that

he is the only student who passed the examination ?

(A)

21

1n n

(B)

22

1n

(C)

22

1n n

(D)

22

n


Letf:

is odd

1 is even

x x , xR R, f x

x x , x

, where [.] denotes greatest integer function.

51. The value of 42

f x dx is equal to :

(A)5

2 (B)

3

2 (C) 5 (D) 3

52. Atx= 1, the functionf(x) is :

(A) Continuous and differentiable (B) Continuous but not differentiable

(C) Discontinuous and not differentiable (D) Not defined


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Let5

and

cos sinA

sin cos

53. The matrixk

A

(A) 1

k k

k k k

cos sin

sin cos

(B)cos k sin k

sin k cos k

(C)

k k

k k

cos sin

sin cos

(D)cos k sin k

sin k cos k

54. The matrix 2 3 4B A A A A is :

(A) Symmetric (B) Skew-symmetric (C) Singular (D) None of these


There are two points 2 2 3A , , and 13 3 13B , , .Lis a line throughA.

55. Equation of a lineL, perpendicular to the lineAB is :

(A)2 2 3

15 5 10

x y z

(B)

2 2 3

3 13 2

x y z

(C)2 2 3

3 13 2

x y z (D)

2 2 3

15 5 10

x y z

56. Direction ratios of the normal to the plane passing through the origin and the pointsAandBare :

(A) 15 5 10, , (B) 11 1 16, , (C) 3, 13, 2 (D) 7, 13, 4


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SECTION - III

MATRIX MATCH TYPE


have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


List 1 List 2

(P) The sum of abscissa and ordinate of the point on the

parabola 2 7 2y x x which is nearest to the straight

line 3 3y x is equal to

1. 1

(Q) If a circle is drawn with variable chord 5 0x ay

(a being a parameter) of the parabola 2 20y x as

diameter, then it always touches the line 0x k , where

kis equal to

2. 10

(R) The foot of perpendicular from a pointPon the parabola to

its directrix isM. IfRis the mid-point of SM focusS ,

then the angle betweenPRand SM is equal to2

k, where k

is equal to

3. 5

(S) If the normals at the end points of a variable chord ABof

the parabola 2 4 2 0y y x are perpendicular, then the

tangents at A and B will intersect at the line 2 0x k ,

where kis equal to

4. 5

Codes:

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 2 3 1 3 (B) 2 4 1 3(C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 2 3 1 4


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List 1 List 2

(P) If

30 1

g x

dt

f x t , where 2

0 1

cos x

g x sin t dt then thevalue of 2f / is equal to

1. 2

(Q) Iff(x) is a non-zero differentiable function such that

2

0

x

f t dt f x for allx, thenf(2) equals2. 2

(R) If 22b

a

x x dx is maximum, then (a+ b) is equal to 3. 1

(S) If 3 20

2 0x

sin x blim a

x x

, then (3a+ b) has the value 4. 1

Codes:

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 4 3 3 1 (B) 3 3 1 1(C) 4 3 3 2 (D) 3 4 1 2


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List 1 List 2

(P) If exactly two real common tangents can be drawn to the circles

2 2 2 2 0x y x y and 2 2 8 8 6 0x y x y for Z then

the greatest possible value of equals

1. 2

(Q) 2

2

| sinx| |cos x| dx

equals 2. 3

(R) The slope of a curve at (x, y) isx y

x

and it passes through the

points1

36

,

and 1, then one of the values of is

3. 1

(S) 6 2, , is a point on the plane passing through the line

1 1 3

2 1 1

x y z

and parallel to the line of intersection of the

planes 5 6x y z and 3 5 3 4x y z . Then is

4. 16

Codes:

P Q R S P Q R S

(A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 2 4 1 2(C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 1 1 2 3


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List 1 List 2

(P)1 0

1 01 0

cos cos cos cos

cos cos cos cos

cos cos cos cos

if 2 2 2cos cos cos

1. 26

(Q) The value of

a b . c d b c . a d c a . b d 2.

1

3

(R) If plane 2 3 6 0x y z k is tangent to the sphere

2 2 2 2 2 2 6 0x y z x y z , then a value of kis

3. 0

(S) There are four boxesA1,A2,A3andA4. BoxAihas icards and on

each card a number is printed, the numbers are from 1 to i.

A box is selected randomly, the probability of selection of box i,

is10

iand then a card is drawn. LetEirepresents the event that a

card with number i is drawn.P(A3/E2) is equal to

4. 1

Codes:

P Q R S P Q R S(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 3 4 1 2(C) 4 3 4 2 (D) 3 4 1 4


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End of JEE Advanced Test - 3/PAPER-2/JEE-2014

10p14 Adv 3 Paper 2 Aceg2

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